It need not be conflated (what the british did with what they understood/misunderstood at the time) with what we have since uncovered scientifically (regarding the clear later migration from the steppe).
Have a read:
https://scroll.in/article/936872/tw...y-so-why-did-indian-media-report-the-opposite
The scroll article is crap,genetics study of r1a1 dna disproves this stuff.
On rakhigari cell 2019 paper :
If you look at the cell paper 2019 authored by Neeraj Rai (Head of Genetics) and Vasant Shindey(Head or archaeology) of this project, shows that the ivc individual and the IVC periphery individuals separated from the ancestors of the iranian agriculturalists at about 10k BC. So IVC people do not have any relation with the iranian Agriculturalists of the later period from 7k BC.
See-https://www.cell.com/cell/pdf/S0092-8674(19)30967-5.pdf
This disproves one huge point that many have been saying since a long time, that agriculture is not indigenous to India and was brought from outside. This further proves that agriculture was developed within India and by Indian people.
The paper then explains in great detail how difficult it is to extract genetic details in the harsh Indian climate and the entire process carried out to extract usable genetic information for drawing concrete conclusions from it, including sophisticated statistical analysis.
Based on these statistical analysis, it was found that, the previously analyzed 11 individual from gonur and shahr-i-shokta, and I6113 from Rakhigarhi were of the same origin. So those 11 individual belonged to ivc and had migrated to areas like Iran and Central Asia, from where their remains were excavated and analyzed. This conclusion was reached based on the analysis that they were not local to the areas they found, because their genetic data did not match with 44 other remains found with these 11. These 11 remains matched with ivc data instead. And our I6113 skeleton from Rakhigarhi also matches with these 11.
So it can definitely be concluded from this section that the 11 individuals had gone “out of India” to Iran and central Asia during iv times. The paper also provides evidence that these individuals had no Anatolian ancestry as well. This ancestry is clearly present in the Iranian agriculturalists but has no relation with the ivc population.
So from this section we can conclude that, during the mature Harappa phase, people moved “out of India” and mixed with people from those regions. AND SHOULD WE CALL IT the “Harappan Invasion of Central Asia” like aitfags do ? this data would give me enough ammunition to claim an invasion from Harappan by the Indus Valley people to Central Asia.
Btw , this paper also claims following by citing same old gibberish from aitfags authors
“the fact that the steppy pastoralist ancestry in South Asia matches that in Bronze Age Eastern Europe, but not Western Europe provides additional evidence for this theory(the theory of Steppe migration to India), as it elegantly explains the shared distinctive features of the Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian languages.”
Infact ,we must know folks this paper ,make no mention of the term ‘aryan’, and yet delusionals merely speculate that migrants may have brought Vedic culture into India. This is mere speculation; the study does not furnish any evidence that would support such a hypothesis. The larp of invasion is long rekt .Does the study demonstrate that the migrants brought Sanskrit and Vedic culture into India? No, it does not. Does the study confirm that there was an "invasion"? No, it does not.
Rather, we find that it is limited in scope, and that its results fit quite well within a larger cycle of back-and-forth population migrations whose most common recent ancestor MRCA originated in present day India.
And even if they came in , they were migrants for whom the Indians felt nothing but pity for and they got assimilated